BIS 320 (Business Information Systems) Week 1

BIS 320 (Business Information Systems) Week 1



BIS 320 Week 1 DQ 1

Post a 200-300-word response to the following discussion question by clicking on Reply.

Think about functional areas within an organization, such as payroll, human resources, and sales. How are software and hardware used in these departments to meet their informational objectives?

BIS 320 Week 1 DQ 2

Post a 200-300-word response to the following discussion question by clicking on Reply.

Is open-source software a viable solution? Why or why not? Use the terminology of closed source, source code, and machine code. Explain why open source could be a legitimate alternative but may not be appropriate for a specific application, such as a payroll application

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Global Issues Global problem of their choice

Global Issues Global problem of their choice


Students will select a global problem of their choice. This may be an environmental problem or a human rights problem. Each student will research and develop a plan to address and solve a manageable portion of this challenge . Your project must be 5-7 pages in length and must include a bibliography. The final project will include an evaluative essay that analyzes the specific problem and poses solutions.

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Criminal Procedure Policy Paper

Criminal Procedure Policy Paper
Write a 1,400- to 1,750-word paper in which you describe the key elements of the rights guaranteed by the Fourth, Fifth and Sixth Amendments and their impact on criminal procedure by the courts and police officers.
Include an explanation of how the Bill of Rights applies to the states via the Fourteenth Amendment.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

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Busn 278 Budgeting and Forecasting Final

Busn 278 Budgeting and Forecasting Final


1. (TCO 1) Which one of the following is not a benefit of budgeting? (Points : 5)

It facilitates the coordination of activities.
It provides definite objectives for evaluating performance.
It provides assurance that the company will achieve its objectives.
It provides early warning signs of potential threats.


2. (TCO 2) Which of the following is not a qualitative forecasting method? (Points : 5)

Executive opinions
Sales force polling
Delphi method
Classical decomposition


3. (TCO 3) Which of the following statements regarding the t-statistic is true? (Points : 5)

The t-statistic cannot be negative.
The t-statistic measures how many standard errors the coefficient is away from the independent variable.
The higher the t-value, the more confidence we have in the coefficient.
Low t-values indicate high reliability.


4. (TCO 4) Which of the following statements regarding the risk associated with R&D activities is incorrect? (Points : 5)

The amount of time between the R&D activity and the cash flows from the project does not affect risk.
Greater risk is associated with creating new products than improving existing products.
Risk increases as the time between the R&D activity and the cash flows from the project increases.
Assessing risk is a vital part of research and development.


5. (TCO 5) Program budgeting does not include: (Points : 5)

Controlling
Programming
Budgeting
Planning


6. (TCO 6) The payback period technique ___________ (Points : 5)

should be used as a final screening tool.
can be the only basis for the capital budgeting decision.
is relatively easy to compute and understand.
considers the expected profitability of a project.


7. (TCO 6) The profitability index is computed by dividing the ___________ (Points : 5)

total cash flows by the initial investment.
present value of cash inflows by the present value of each outflow.
initial investment by the total cash flows.
initial investment by the present value of cash flows.


8. (TCO 6) A company projects annual cash inflows of $85,000 each year for the next five years if it invests $300,000 in new equipment. The equipment has a five-year life and an estimated salvage value of  $75,000. What is the accounting rate of return on this investment? (Points : 5)

28.3%
13.3%
15%
43.3%


9. (TCO 6) If an asset costs $210,000 and is expected to have a $30,000 salvage value at the end of its ten-year life, and generates annual net cash inflows of $30,000 each year, the payback period is _____.

(Points : 5)

5 years
6 years
7 years
8 years


10. (TCO 6) Hyde Inc. is comparing several alternative capital budgeting projects as shown below:

Projects A B C

Initial Investment $110,000 $90,000 $50,000

Present value of cash inflows $100,000 $100,000 $60,000

Using the profitability index, rank the projects, starting with the most attractive. (Points : 5)

A, C, B.
A, B, C.
C, A, B.
C, B, A.


11. (TCO 6) Cleaners, Inc. is considering purchasing equipment costing $30,000 with a six-year useful life. The equipment will provide cost savings of $7,300 and will be depreciated straight-line over its

useful life with no salvage value. Cleaners requires a 10% rate of return. What is the approximate net present value of this investment? (Points : 5)

$13,800
$1,794
$886
$2,748


12. (TCO 7) Which of the following would not appear as a fixed expense on a selling and administrative expense budget? (Points : 5)

Freight-out
Office salaries
Property taxes
Depreciation


13. (TCO 7) A company budgeted unit sales of 102,000 units for January, 2008 and 120,000 units for February, 2008. The company has a policy of having an inventory of units on hand at the end of each month equal to 30% of next month’s budgeted unit sales. If there were 30,600 units of inventory on hand on December 31, 2007, how many units should be produced in January, 2008 in order for the company to meet its goals? (Points : 5)

107,400 units
102,000 units
96,600 units
138,000 units


14. (TCO 8) Standards that are based on efficient activity with allowances for unavoidable losses are called _______ (Points : 5)

basic standards.
maximum efficiency standards.
currently attainable standards.
expected standards.


15. (TCO 9) A static budget is appropriate for __________ (Points : 5)

variable overhead costs.
direct materials costs.
fixed overhead costs.
none of these.


16. (TCO 9) If the activity level increases 10%, total variable costs will ___________. (Points : 5)

remain the same
increase by more than 10%
decrease by less than 10%
increase 10%


17. (TCO 9) At the high level of activity in November, 7,000 machine hours were run and power costs were $12,000. In April, a month of low activity, 2,000 machine hours were run and power costs amounted to $6,000. Using the high-low method, what is the estimated fixed cost element of power costs? (Points : 5)

$12,000
$6,000
$3,600
$8,400


18. (TCO 10) Which of the following statements regarding budget reports is incorrect? (Points : 5)

The cost of budget reports should not outweigh the benefits.
Budget reports are used for planning, control, and information.
Reports prepared for upper management typically have fewer details than reports prepared for lower-level managers.
Reports are prepared more frequently for upper management than for lower-level managers.

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Strayer BUS 520 Week 6 Assignment 3

Strayer BUS 520 Week 6 Assignment 3


1. Explain one possible option that Marathon could take to reduce the time involved in the production process.

2. Discuss the relationship between the retail price of gasoline and the price of crude oil.

3. Explain whatMarathon could do to keep the price at the pump the same without losing profits if the price of crude increased 10%.

4. In June 2010, President Obama imposed a six month deep water drilling moratorium. If theUS government prohibits deep water drilling off theUS coast, discuss how theUS oil companies can remain competitive in theUS market when over 35% of crude oil is currently sourced from domestic deep water drilling.

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ACCT Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS)

ACCT Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS)


1. The Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS) specifies which of the following depreciation methods for buildings?

A. 150% declining-balance.

B. Double-declining-balance.

C. Straight line.

D. Buildings are not depreciable assets.


2. The Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS) specifies which of the following depreciation methods for land?

A. 150% declining-balance.

B. Double-declining-balance.

C. Straight line.

D. Land is not a depreciable asset.


3. If an organization has an obligation to pay $5,000 to a supplier two years from now, the  present value of the obligation:

A. is less than $5,000.

B. is $5,000.

C. is more than $5,000.

D. could be calculated using an annuity factor from the present value
tables.


4. Depreciation, in accounting, is a process that results in:

A. depreciable assets being reported in the balance sheet at their fair market value.

B. accumulating cash for the replacement of the asset.

C. an accurate measurement of the economic usefulness of an asset.

D. spreading the cost of an asset over its useful life to the entity.




Use the below present value tables for problems 5, 6 and 7


5. The present value of $3,000 to be received in 7 years at 10% is:

A. $616.22

B. $1,539.60

C. $3,000.00

D. $5,845.67


6. The present value of $3,000 to be received every year for 9 years, at 10%, is:

A. $7,073.80

B. $12,273.00

C. $17,277.00

D. $27,000.00


7. The present value of an obligation of $4,000 payable in 7 years at 8% is:

A. $1,760

B. $2,334

C. $3,206

D. $3,680



Solution - PV = FV [ 1 / (1 + i)n ]


8. A particular common stock has an annual cash dividend of $2.00 per share and is predicted to have a market value of $30 per share 5 years from now. Assuming a discount rate of 10%, a fair market price for the stock today is:

A. $20.00

B. $26.21

C. $37.58

D. $56.21



Solution-






= $26.21





9. Psyche Company wants to acquire Trim Company. Trim's ROI has been above average for its industry; net income has averaged $70,000 a year more than the industry average. These
"excess" earnings are expected to continue at this amount for 5 years. Assuming a discount rate of 8%, how much goodwill will arise from Psyches' purchase of Trim?

A. $40,836

B. $88,157

C. $279,489

D. $350,000



Solution –




 = $279,490





10. Leasehold is an example of which of the following types of assets?

A. Current asset.

B. Property, plant and equipment.

C. Goodwill.

D. Intangible asset.



11. The principal challenge to calculating depletion is estimating:

A. the cost of the asset.

B. the salvage value of the exploration equipment.

C. the demand for the product.

D. the quantity of material to be recovered.


12. Long-lived, intangible assets such as leasehold improvements, patents, and copyrights are all subject to:

A. depreciation

B. amortization

C. depletion

D. consolidation


13. When a depreciable asset is sold:

A. a gain arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.

B. a loss arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.

C. any cash received results in a gain.

D. depreciation expense is adjusted so there is no gain or loss.


14. Goodwill is an asset that arises because the present value of an acquired company's  estimated future earnings, discounted at the acquiring firm's ROI:

A. is less than the fair market value of the net assets of the acquired company.

B. is more than the fair market value of the net assets of the acquired company.

C. is more than the fair market value of the net assets of the acquiring company.

D. is less than the fair market value of the net assets of the acquiring company.


15. The intangible asset "goodwill:"

A. represents the management team's assessment of its value to the
company.

B. may arise when one company purchases another company.

C. arises because the market value of a company's assets is greater than
cost.

D. all of the above are correct.



16. Many current liabilities are affected by accrual accounting entries. This happens because:

A. liabilities are usually paid when they are incurred.

B. accrual accounting involves recognizing liabilities before they are paid.

C. the only way to reduce a liability account balance is with an adjusting entry.

D. accrual accounting frequently involves recognizing liabilities before
they are incurred.


17. Which of the following is not usually associated with bonds?

A. Coupon rate.

B. Maturity value.

C. Face amount.

D. Maturity rate.



18. An Accounts Payable could result from which of the following transactions?

A. Purchasing accounts for cash.

B. Purchasing property, plant and equipment on credit.

C. Purchasing goods and services from suppliers on credit.

D. All of the above.


19. The current liability for Wages Payable (or Accrued Payroll) represents the:

A. gross pay earned by employees for which they have not yet been paid.

B. net pay earned by employees for which they have not yet been paid.

C. employer's federal and state payroll tax obligation.

D. employer's liability for various with holdings taken out of the gross pay earned by employees.


20. The financial leverage characteristic of long-term debt results in:

A. a reduction of the risk that creditors will not be paid.

B. a magnification of ROE relative to what it would be without long-term debt.

C. a magnification of ROI relative to what it would be without long-term debt.

D. the deductibility, for income tax purposes, of dividends to stockholders.


21. When a company issues a bond at a premium:

A. the company is more profitable than most companies in its industry.

B. investors perceive the bond to be a very safe investment.

C. the investors' interest income will be less than the interest received each year.

D. the investors' interest income will be more than the interest received each year.


22. Which of the following is not sometimes associated with bonds?

A. Debenture.

B. Callable.

C. Cumulative.

D. Convertible



23. If the market price of a bond exceeds its face amount:

A. the coupon rate is less than the market interest rate.

B. the coupon rate is more than the market interest rate.

C. the company's ROI and working capital have been increasing over time.

D. the maturity rate has been declining.


24. The market value of a bond is the sum of the present value of future interest payments and the present value of the amount to be repaid at maturity, discounted at:

A. the market rate.

B. the coupon rate.

C. the dividend rate.

D. the prime rate.


25. Financial leverage refers to which of the following?

A. The difference between the rate of return earned on assets (ROI) and the rate of return earned on owners' equity (ROE).

B. The difference between the rate of return earned on current assets and the rate of return earned on retained earnings.

C. The leverage a firm obtains from increasing production.

D. Decreasing fixed costs per unit by increasing production.


26. When a company issues a bond at a discount:

A. the company will pay less than the face amount of the bond at its
maturity.

B. the company will pay more than the face amount of the bond at its maturity.

C. the company's interest expense will be less than the interest paid each  year.

D. the company's interest expense will be more than the interest paid each year.


27. When bonds are issued at a premium:

A. interest expense on the bonds will be less than the interest paid.

B. interest expense on the bonds will be more than the interest paid.

C. the bonds are sold for less than their face amount.

D. the coupon interest rate is less than the market interest rate.


28. Which of the following is (are) a true statement(s) pertaining to bonds?

A. Bonds can be sold at a discount, par, or payable.

B. Bonds can be sold at a discount, par, or premium.

C. The SEC sets the market price of a bond.

D. The issuing firm sets the price of a bond.

E. None of the above.


29. Which of the following is true regarding bond discounts and/or premiums?

A. Bond discount is amortized but bond premium is not.

B. Bond premium is amortized but bond discount is not.

C. Neither bond discount nor premium is amortized.

D. Both bond discount and premium are amortized.



30. The amortization of bond discount:

A. increases the cash paid to bondholders for interest.

B. results in bond interest expense being greater than the interest paid to bondholders.

C. results in bond interest expense being less than the interest paid to bondholders.

D. reduces the carrying value of bonds payable on the balance sheet.


31. Factors that usually affect retained earnings directly include:

A. net income or loss, and dividends.

B. extraordinary items and losses from discontinued operations.

C. stock dividends and gains or losses from the sale of treasury stock.

D. net income or loss, and the issuance of stock at an amount in excess of par value.


32. In comparison to the owners' equity section of a corporation's balance sheet, owners' equity of a proprietorship or partnership:

A. normally does not make a distinction between invested capital and retained earnings.

B. normally uses "Capital" accounts for each individual owner, rather than a "Retained Earnings" account for all of the owners.

C. normally uses a "Drawings" account for each individual owner, rather than a "Dividends" account for all of the owners.

D. all of the above.


33. The declaration of a cash dividend by the directors results in:

A. a decrease in cash and a decrease in retained earnings.

B. a decrease in retained earnings and an increase in current liabilities.

C. a decrease in net income and a decrease in cash.

D. a decrease in net income and an increase in current liabilities.



34. In most states, par value of issued shares represents:

A. Legal capital.

B. No par capital.

C. Noncontrolling capital.

D. Corporate capital.


35. The term preemptive right pertains to which of the following?

A. The Board of Directors rights in liquidation.

B. Present shareholders right to purchase shares from any additional share issuances.

C. Present shareholders right to purchase treasury shares when reissued.

D. Preferred stockholders right to dividends.


36. Balance sheet disclosures for preferred stock include all of the following except:

A. The number of shares issued.

B. The number of shares outstanding.

C. The liquidating or redemption value.

D. The credit or market value.

E. The number of shares authorized.



37. The declaration date pertains to:

A. The date used to determine who receives dividends.

B. The date on which the board of directors declares it's going to liquidate the firm.

C. The date on which the board of directors declares a dividend.

D. The date a dividend is paid.



38. Fred Jones owns 56 shares of the Robust Corporation's stock. Robust announces a 3 for 2 stock split. How many shares will Fred have after this split?

A. 178 shares.

B. 112 shares.

C. 84 shares.

D. 56 shares.


39. Braco has 40,000 shares of $100 par value common stock outstanding, and 10,000 shares in the treasury. The number of additional shares that would be issued in a 5% stock dividend is:

A. 500

B. 1,000

C. 1,500

D. 2,000



40. When a stock dividend is declared and issued:

A. total paid-in capital does not change.

B. total owners' equity does not change.

C. the balance in the retained earnings account is decreased by the par value of the shares issued in the dividend.

D. total paid-in capital is decreased by the market value of the shares issued in the dividend.


41. When a company splits its common stock 3 for 1:

A. total paid-in capital increases by a factor of 3.

B. the balance in the retained earnings account is decreased by the market value of the shares issued.

C. the market value of the company's stock falls by two-thirds.

D. the shareholders are assured of receiving larger cash dividends.



42. The principal reason for a company having a common stock split is to:

A. increase the total cash dividends paid to stockholders.

B. capitalize retained earnings.

C. decrease total owners' equity.

D. decrease the market value per share of common stock.


43. When a firm purchases its own shares for the treasury:

A. total owners' equity is decreased.

B. total owners' equity is increased.

C. the balance in the retained earnings account is decreased.
\
D. paid-in capital is decreased.


44. If a firm sells treasury stock for more than its cost:

A. a gain is recognized in the income statement.

B. the balance in the retained earnings account is increased.

C. additional paid-in capital is increased.

D. total owners' equity does not change.


45. The statement of changes in retained earnings for the year shows:

A. the retained earnings balance at the beginning of the year.

B. amounts received from the sale of additional common stock during the
year.

C. extraordinary gains or losses during the year.

D. the effect of a stock split during the year.

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Strayer BUS 520 Week 4 Assignment 2 Amazon

Strayer BUS 520 Week 4 Assignment 2 Amazon

1. Discuss whether or not Amazon has lost its identity by expanding into markets well beyond books.
2. Recommend what Amazon should do to protect its brand.
3. Recommend what Barnes &Noble and Borders should do to recapture some of their online market share.
4. At one time Dell sold computers exclusively online, now the same computers are available in retail stores (Wal-Mart for example). Discuss whether or not you foresee Amazon expanding its channel of distribution to include retail locations.

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